Re: Immaculate conception

On 2008-05-13 16:22:17 +0100, Gumby <gumby@[EMAIL PROTECTED]
> said:

> Mark N wrote:
>> Priscilla H. Ballou wrote:
>> 
>>> I can't stand it any more!
>>> 
>>> The doctrine of the Immaculate Conception refers to the conception of 
>>> Mary, not of Jesus.  It involves her being conceived without original 
>>> sin so she could be the sinless vessel to later bear Jesus.
>>> 
>>> The doctrine of the Virgin Birth refers to the origins of Jesus, that 
>>> Mary conceived him without there being *** with a man involved.
>> 
>> 
>> Well, that's why it's called the Immaculate Conception! *** is dirty.
> 
> I doubt that was the point as the Bible instructs people to be fruitful 
> and multiply.
> 
>> Most women have to have *** with a man in order to get pregnant. 
>> Therefore, most women have Dirty Conceptions. Mary, on the other hand, 
>> was able to conceive Jesus without having to perfom any dirty acts. 
>> Therefore, she had an Immaculate Conception.
> 
> Immaculate refers to the fact that God impregnated Mary via an angel. 
> "dirty" had nothing to do with it. Methinks it's you who has issues 
> about ***.
> 
>> 
>> At least, I assume that that's the kind of implicit reasoning that 
>> underlies the widespread false belief about what the Immaculate 
>> Conception is. :-)
> 
> Y'know, I'm not religious but the lot of you folks in this thread are   
> being disrespectful to those who are.

Actually chaps, you still haven't understood what Priscilla is saying. 
The doctrine of the Immaculate Conception has nothing whatever to do 
with the birth or conception of Jesus. It refers to the conception of 
Mary by (according to Catholic tradition) her mother, Anna, which did 
involve the biological input of her father Joachim.